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NABP FPGEE Dumps

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NABP FPGEE Sample Questions

Question # 1

All of the following are examples of amino penicillin, EXCEPT: 

A. Ampicillin  
B. Cloxacillin  
C. Amoxicillin  
D. Bicampicilin  
E. All are correct  



Question # 2

The side effects of isoniazid are potentialized by deficiency of which vitamin?  

A. Thiamine  
B. Pyridoxine  
C. Folic acid  
D. Niacin  
E. Cyanocobalamin  



Question # 3

Which of the following complications is considered the gravest side effect associated with isoniazid treatment?

A. Cardiac dysfunction  
B. Mental dysfunction  
C. Hepatitis  
D. Renal complications  
E. Discoloration of skin  



Question # 4

Which of the following statements best describes the action of the antitubercular agent ISONIAZID?  

A. Inhibit cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium  
B. Inhibit the DNA duplication of mycobacterium  
C. Inhibit arachydonic acids that feed mycobacterium  
D. Inhibit mycolic acids that are unique for mycobacterium  
E. Inhibit protein synthesis of mycobacterium  



Question # 5

Which of the following conditions are quinolone antimicrobial drugs mainly used?  

A. Respiratory tract infections  
B. Urinary tract infections  
C. Gastrointestinal tract infections  
D. Endocarditis  
E. Cerebral infections  



Question # 6

All of the following are examples of quinolone antimicrobial agents, EXCEPT  

A. Cephalexin  
B. Ofloxacin  
C. Norfloxacin  
D. Ciprofloxacin  
E. Levofloxacin  



Question # 7

Which of the following statement is RIGHT regarding influenza treatment?  I- Type A influenza is best treated by amantadine and rimantadineII- Type B influenza is best treated by oseltamivir and zenamivir III- Influenza should not be treated with antiviral agents    

A. I only  
B. III only  
C. I and II only  
D. II and III only  
E. All are correct  



Question # 8

Which of the following vitamins is depleted in the blood by smoke? 

A. Vitamin C 
B. Vitamin B 
C. Vitamin E 
D. Vitamin D 
E. Vitamin A 



Question # 9

Treatment of smoke withdrawal symptoms may include which of the following? I- Nicorette II- Nicoderm III- Zyban 

A. I only 
B. III only 
C. I and II only 
D. II and III only 
E. All are correct



Question # 10

Patient has a relevant increase in his asthma symptoms due to environmental allergies. He is currently having salbutamol and fluticasone inhalers. What would you advise as an adjunct medication to treat his symptoms?

A. Oral corticosteroids 
B. Higher dose of corticosteroid inhalers 
C. Salmeterol 
D. Sodium cromoglycate 
E. Anticholinergic agents



Question # 11

Wrong statement regarding antifungal agents includes which of the following?  

A. Polyene antifungal act binding to ergosterol from pores resulting in linkage of cellular.  
B. Azoles antifungal act blocking the synthesis of ergosterol.  
C. Polyene antifungal has the widest spectrum compared to any other agent  
D. Side effects of antifungals include fever, chills, anorexia, headaches and muscle pain  
E. Side effects of antifungals cannot be treat for Tylenol due to high drug interaction.  



Question # 12

Diflunisal is most likely to be prescribed for the treatment of: 

A. WiIson’s disease 
B. Rheumatoid arthritis 
C. Cysteinuria 
D. Psoriasis 
E. Hansen’s disease 



Question # 13

Which of the following agents is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered to have aspirin sensitivity?

A. Ibuprofen 
B. Acetaminophen 
C. Gold therapy 
D. Azathioprine 
E. Cyclophosphamide 



Question # 14

Which of the following is considered a polyene antifungal agent?  

A. Miconazole  
B. Clotrimazole  
C. Amphotericin  
D. Itraconazole  
E. Ketoconazole  



Question # 15

Drug known as the new relative cromolyn like drug include:  

A. Cromolyn sodium  
B. Cromoglycanate sodium  
C. Cromolyin disodium  
D. Disodium cromoglycanate  
E. Nedocromil sodium  



Question # 16

Correct administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis include: 

A. With meals 
B. In emptying stomach 
C. With plenty of water 
D. With orange juice 
E. Before bedtime 



Question # 17

Which is the correct start dose of methothrexate in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis? 

A. 7.5mg once a week 
B. 15mg once a week 
C. 7.5mg daily 
D. 15mg daily 
E. 22mg once a week



Question # 18

All are examples of antihelmintic drugs, EXCEPT:  

A. Niclosamide  
B. Prazinquatel  
C. Mebendazole  
D. Dapsone  
E. Thiabendazole  



Question # 19

Indication of Ieukotrienes modifiers in the treatment of asthma includes which of the following?  I- Acute treatmentII- Prophylaxis III- Chronic treatment    

A. I only  
B. III only  
C. I and II only  
D. II and III only  
E. All are correct  



Question # 20

Antimalarial drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis as DMRA-Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug

A. Chloroquine 
B. Quinine 
C. Sulfasalazine 
D. Hydroxycloroquine 
E. Primaquine 



Question # 21

Drug of choice in the treatment of percutaneous blood infection-schistosomyasis may include:  

A. Niclosamide  
B. Prazinquatel  
C. Mebendazole  
D. Dapsone  
E. Thiabendazole  



Question # 22

Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by: 

A. Loss of joint movements 
B. Loss of bone mass 
C. Imbalance of uric acid 
D. Hormonal imbalance 
E. All are correct 



Question # 23

Agents considered as precursor of Ieukotriene include:  

A. Tyrosine  
B. Cyanide  
C. Arachidonic acid  
D. Prostaglandins  
E. Histamine  



Question # 24

Use of estrogen in osteoporosis: I- Estrogen enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss II- Estrogen is useful in treat osteoporosis associated to menopauseIII- Estrogen is not effective at increasing bone mass that has already been lost. 

A. I only 
B. III only 
C. I and II only 
D. II and III only 
E. All are correct 



Question # 25

Example of drug(s) used in treatment of tuberculosis include:  I- IsoniazidII- Rifampin III- Ethambutol     

A. I only  
B. III only  
C. I and II only  
D. II and III only  
E. All are correct  



Question # 26

Example of methyl xanthine used in the treatment of respiratory complications include:  

A. Theophyllin  
B. Terbutaline  
C. Ipratropium  
D. Zafirlukast 
E. Salmeterol  



Question # 27

Allopurinol, xanthine oxidase inhibitor, used in gout treatment may produce all the following side effects, EXCEPT:

A. Increase in protrombin time 
B. Hypersensitivity rashes 
C. GIT intolerance 
D. Peripheral neuritis 
E. Necrotizing vasculitis



Question # 28

Characteristics of GOUT, a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine metabolism may include: I- Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints II- The joint inflammation is caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals III- It is a type osteoporosis

A. I only
B. III only 
C. I and II only 
D. II and III only 
E. All are correct



Question # 29

All are 2-agonists used as brochodilators in the treatment of bronchospasm, EXCEPT:  

A. Albuterol  
B. Salmeterol  
C. Terbutaline  
D. Pindolol  
E. Levalbuterol  



Question # 30

Which of the following best classify metronidazole?  

A. Antiprotozoa  
B. Antibiotic  
C. Antifungal  
D. Antiviral  
E. Antimicrobial  



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