Cisco 350-701 Exam Dumps

What provides total management for mobile and PC including managing inventory and device tracking, remote view, and live troubleshooting using the included native remote desktop support? 

A. mobile device management 
B. mobile content management 
C. mobile application management 
D. mobile access management

Answer: A

Which two commands are required when configuring a flow-export action on a Cisco ASA? (Choose two.)

A. flow-export event-type 
B. policy-map 
C. access-list 
D. flow-export template timeout-rate 15 
E. access-group 

Answer: A,B

Which characteristic is unique to a Cisco WSAv as compared to a physical appliance?

A. supports VMware vMotion on VMware ESXi B. requires an additional license C. performs transparent redirection D. supports SSL decryption
A. supports VMware vMotion on VMware ESXi 
B. requires an additional license 
C. performs transparent redirection 
D. supports SSL decryption

Answer: A

What is the most commonly used protocol for network telemetry?

A. SMTP 
B. SNMP 
C. TFTP 
D. NctFlow 

Answer: D

A network security engineer must export packet captures from the Cisco FMC web browser while troubleshooting an issue. When navigating to the address https:///capure/CAPI/pcap/test.pcap, an error 403: Forbidden is given instead of the PCAP file. Which action must the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A. Disable the proxy setting on the browser
 B. Disable the HTTPS server and use HTTP instead 
C. Use the Cisco FTD IP address as the proxy server setting on the browser 
D. Enable the HTTPS server for the device platform policy 

Answer: D

What is a functional difference between Cisco AMP for Endpoints and Cisco Umbrella Roaming Client? 

A. The Umbrella Roaming client stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and AMP for Endpoints tracks only URL-based threats. 
B. The Umbrella Roaming Client authenticates users and provides segmentation, and AMP for Endpoints allows only for VPN connectivity 
C. AMP for Endpoints authenticates users and provides segmentation, and the Umbrella Roaming Client allows only for VPN connectivity. 
D. AMP for Endpoints stops and tracks malicious activity on hosts, and the Umbrella Roaming Client tracks only URL-based threats. 

Answer: D

An engineer is configuring Dropbox integration with Cisco Cloudlock. Which action must be taken before granting API access in the Dropbox admin console? 

A. Authorize Dropbox within the Platform settings in the Cisco Cloudlock portal. 
B. Add Dropbox to the Cisco Cloudlock Authentication and API section in the Cisco Cloudlock portal.
 C. Send an API request to Cisco Cloudlock from Dropbox admin portal. 
D. Add Cisco Cloudlock to the Dropbox admin portal. 

Answer: A

Which API method and required attribute are used to add a device into Cisco DNA Center with the native API? 

A. GET and serialNumber
 B. userSudiSerlalNos and deviceInfo 
C. POST and name 
D. lastSyncTime and pid 

Answer: A

What does endpoint isolation in Cisco AMP for Endpoints security protect from?

A. an infection spreading across the network E 
B. a malware spreading across the user device 
C. an infection spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account 
D. a malware spreading across the LDAP or Active Directory domain from a user account

Answer: C

What are two benefits of using an MDM solution? (Choose two.)

A. grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device 
B. provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users 
C. native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or onpremises environments 
D. encrypts data that is stored on endpoints 
E. allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations 

Answer: A,E

An engineer is configuring cloud logging using a company-managed Amazon S3 bucket for Cisco Umbrella logs. What benefit does this configuration provide for accessing log data? 

A. It is included m the license cost for the multi-org console of Cisco Umbrella 
B. It can grant third-party SIEM integrations write access to the S3 bucket
 C. No other applications except Cisco Umbrella can write to the S3 bucket 
D. Data can be stored offline for 30 days. 

Answer: D

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multinational organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter?

A. Defang 
B. Quarantine
 C. FilterAction 
D. ScreenAction 

Answer: B

Client workstations are experiencing extremely poor response time. An engineer suspects that an attacker is eavesdropping and making independent connections while relaying messages between victims to make them think they are talking to each other over a private connection. Which feature must be enabled and configured to provide relief from this type of attack? 

A. Link Aggregation 
B. Reverse ARP 
C. private VLANs 
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection

Answer: D

Which two protocols must be configured to authenticate end users to the Web Security Appliance? (Choose two.)

A. NTLMSSP
 B. Kerberos 
C. CHAP 
D. TACACS+ 
E. RADIUS 

Answer: A,B

Which action must be taken in the AMP for Endpoints console to detect specific MD5 signatures on endpoints and then quarantine the files?

A. Configure an advanced custom detection list. 
B. Configure an IP Block & Allow custom detection list 
C. Configure an application custom detection list 
D. Configure a simple custom detection list 

Answer: A

How does Cisco Workload Optimization portion of the network do EPP solutions solely performance issues?

A. It deploys an AWS Lambda system 
B. It automates resource resizing
 C. It optimizes a flow path 
D. It sets up a workload forensic score

Answer: B

Which Cisco Firewall solution requires zone definition? 

A. CBAC
 B. Cisco AMP 
C. ZBFW 
D. Cisco ASA 

Answer: C

Which Cisco DNA Center RESTful PNP API adds and claims a device into a workflow?

A. api/v1/fie/config 
B. api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device/import 
C. api/v1/onboarding/pnp-device 
D. api/v1/onboarding/workflow 

Answer: B

Which capability is provided by application visibility and control?

A. reputation filtering
B. data obfuscation 
C. data encryption 
D. deep packet inspection 

Answer: D

When network telemetry is implemented, what is important to be enabled across all network infrastructure devices to correlate different sources?

A. CDP 
B. NTP 
C. syslog 
D. DNS 

Answer: B

What is a benefit of using Cisco Umbrella?

A. DNS queries are resolved faster. 
B. Attacks can be mitigated before the application connection occurs. 
C. Files are scanned for viruses before they are allowed to run.
 D. It prevents malicious inbound traffic. 

Answer: B

Which two criteria must a certificate meet before the WSA uses it to decrypt application traffic? (Choose two.)

A. It must include the current date. 
B. It must reside in the trusted store of the WSA. 
C. It must reside in the trusted store of the endpoint. 
D. It must have been signed by an internal CA. 
E. it must contain a SAN. 

Answer: A,B

A company has 5000 Windows users on its campus. Which two precautions should IT take to prevent WannaCry ransomware from spreading to all clients? (Choose two.) 

A. Segment different departments to different IP blocks and enable Dynamic ARp inspection on all VLANs 
B. Ensure that noncompliant endpoints are segmented off to contain any potential damage.
 C. Ensure that a user cannot enter the network of another department. 
D. Perform a posture check to allow only network access to (hose Windows devices that are already patched. 
E. Put all company users in the trusted segment of NGFW and put all servers to the DMZ segment of the Cisco NGFW. ni 

Answer: B,D

Email security has become a high priority task for a security engineer at a large multinational organization due to ongoing phishing campaigns. To help control this, the engineer has deployed an Incoming Content Filter with a URL reputation of (-10 00 to -6 00) on the Cisco ESA Which action will the system perform to disable any links in messages that match the filter? 

A. Defang 
B. Quarantine
 C. FilterAction 
D. ScreenAction 

Answer: A

What are two workloaded security models? (Choose two)

A. SaaS 
B. IaaS 
C. on-premises 
D. off-premises 
E. PaaS 

Answer: C,D

Which two configurations must be made on Cisco ISE and on Cisco TrustSec devices to force a session to be adjusted after a policy change is made? (Choose two)

A. posture assessment 
B. aaa authorization exec default local 
C. tacacs-server host 10.1.1.250 key password 
D. aaa server radius dynamic-author 
E. CoA

Answer: D,E

Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat intelligence in a machinedigestible format? 

A. OpenC2 
B. OpenlOC 
C. CybOX 
D. STIX 

Answer: D

What is a characteristic of an EDR solution and not of an EPP solution?

A. stops all ransomware attacks 
B. retrospective analysis 
C. decrypts SSL traffic for better visibility 
D. performs signature-based detection 

Answer: B

What is the purpose of the Cisco Endpoint loC feature?

A. It provides stealth threat prevention.
 B. lt is a signature-based engine. 
C. lt is an incident response tool 
D. It provides precompromise detection.

Answer: C

An organization is implementing AAA for their users. They need to ensure that authorization is verified for every command that is being entered by the network administrator. Which protocol must be configured in order to provide this capability?

A. EAPOL 
B. SSH 
C. RADIUS 
D. TACACS+ 

Answer: D

Which feature is used in a push model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination?

A. AAA attributes 
B. CoA request 
C. AV pair 
D. carrier-grade NAT

Answer: C

How does Cisco AMP for Endpoints provide next-generation protection? 

A. It encrypts data on user endpoints to protect against ransomware. 
B. It leverages an endpoint protection platform and endpoint detection and response. 
C. It utilizes Cisco pxGrid, which allows Cisco AMP to pull threat feeds from threat intelligence centers. 
D. It integrates with Cisco FTD devices. 

Answer: B

Which two capabilities does an MDM provide? (Choose two.)

A. delivery of network malware reports to an inbox in a schedule 
B. unified management of mobile devices, Macs, and PCs from a centralized dashboard 
C. enforcement of device security policies from a centralized dashboard 
D. manual identification and classification of client devices 
E. unified management of Android and Apple devices from a centralized dashboard 

Answer: B,C

What are two benefits of using Cisco Duo as an MFA solution? (Choose two.) 

A. grants administrators a way to remotely wipe a lost or stolen device 
B. provides simple and streamlined login experience for multiple applications and users 
C. native integration that helps secure applications across multiple cloud platforms or onpremises environments
 D. encrypts data that is stored on endpoints
 E. allows for centralized management of endpoint device applications and configurations 

Answer: B,C

Which security solution is used for posture assessment of the endpoints in a BYOD solution?

A. Cisco FTD 
B. Cisco ASA 
C. Cisco Umbrella 
D. Cisco ISE

Answer: D

What are two characteristics of the RESTful architecture used within Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.) 

A. REST uses methods such as GET, PUT, POST, and DELETE. 
B. REST codes can be compiled with any programming language. 
C. REST is a Linux platform-based architecture. 
D. The POST action replaces existing data at the URL path. 
E. REST uses HTTP to send a request to a web service. 

Answer: A,E

Which command is used to log all events to a destination colector 209.165.201.107?

A. CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10 
B. CiscoASA(config-cmap)# flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201. 
C. CiscoASA(config-pmap-c)#flow-export event-type all destination 209.165.201.10 
D. CiscoASA(config-cmap)#flow-export event-type flow-update destination 209.165.201.10 

Answer: C

Which open standard creates a framework for sharing threat intelligence in a machinedigestible format?

A. OpenC2 
B. OpenlOC 
C. CybOX 
D. STIX 

Answer: D

During a recent security audit a Cisco IOS router with a working IPSEC configuration using IKEv1 was flagged for using a wildcard mask with the crypto isakmp key command The VPN peer is a SOHO router with a dynamically assigned IP address Dynamic DNS has been configured on the SOHO router to map the dynamic IP address to the host name of vpn sohoroutercompany.com In addition to the command crypto isakmp key Cisc425007536 hostname vpn.sohoroutercompany.com what other two commands are now required on the Cisco IOS router for the VPN to continue to function after the wildcard command is removed? (Choose two)

A. ip host vpn.sohoroutercompany.eom 
B. crypto isakmp identity hostname 
C. Add the dynamic keyword to the existing crypto map command 
D. fqdn vpn.sohoroutercompany.com 
E. ip name-server 

Answer: C,E

What is the process In DevSecOps where all changes In the central code repository are merged and synchronized?

A. CD 
B. EP 
C. CI 
D. QA 

Answer: C

Which algorithm is an NGE hash function?

A. HMAC 
B. SHA-1 
C. MD5 
D. SISHA-2

Answer: D

Which function is performed by certificate authorities but is a limitation of registration authorities?

A. accepts enrollment requests 
B. certificate re-enrollment 
C. verifying user identity 
D. CRL publishing 

Answer: C