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Which of the following is NOT a purpose served by a professional organization s code of conduct?
A. It provides more direct solutions to professional ethical dilemmas than might exist under general ethical principles
B. It serves as a reference and benchmark for ethical guidance
C. It provides clear answers to all ethical dilemmas the organization s members might face
D. It facilitates practical enforcement and profession-wide internal discipline
According to behaviorists such as B F Skinner, which of the following scenarios is mostly likely to occur when an undesired behavior is punished?
A. The behavior will be permanently suppressed
B. The behavior will return when punishment ceases
C. The behavior will occur more frequently.
D. The behavior will not be affected by the punishment
Which of the following is NOT an effective way to help prevent fraud through the organization's performance measurement and management programs?
A. Establishing well-defined job descriptions to facilitate performance evaluations
B. Evaluating employee performance based solely on productivity and profit
C. Tying employee compensation to reasonable organizational performance goals
D. Providing regular training to ensure that all employees are sufficiently prepared to perform their tasks
Which of the following is among the audit committee s primary responsibilities related to fraud risk management?
A. Understanding how internal and external audit strategies address fraud risk
B. Designing the fraud risk management program
C. Punishing fraud perpetrators discovered through fraud risk management activities
D. Implementing the fraud risk management program
Effectively documenting and communicating organizational hierarchies, including the proper flow of information, can be a helpful tool in preventing fraud
A. True
B. False
Criminologist Charles McCaghy has slated that profit pressure is the single most compelling factor behind deviance by organizations
A. True
B. False
Blue, a Certified Fraud Examiner (CFE). had an ethical dilemma regarding the contract governing one of his professional engagements. Which of the following sources of guidance would be considered the lowest level of reference to help Blue in determining the most ethical course of action?
A. Contract law
B. The handling of similar situations by individuals he respects
C. Moral philosophical principles
D. The ACFE Code of Professional Ethics
According to International Auditing Standard (ISA) 240. the two types of intentional financial statement misstatements that are relevant to the auditor are
A. Misstatements resulting from fraudulent financial reporting and misstatements resulting from misappropriation of assets
B. Misstatements resulting from revenue manipulation and misstatements resulting from expense manipulation
C. Misstatements affecting the income statement and misstatements affecting the balance sheet
D. Immaterial misstatements and material misstatements
A corporation can generally be held criminally responsible for criminal acts committed by its employees even if those in management had no knowledge of or participation in the underlying events.
A. True
B. False
A report by a fraud examiner is privileged from disclosure by anyone other than the client
A. True
B. False
Which of the following is NOT considered a conflict of interest that is prohibited under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics? )
A. Undertaking an engagement that decreases the fraud examiner's ability to perform their duties for their full-time employer
B. Accepting an assignment to assess red flags of fraud at an organization in which the fraud examiner is a partner, provided the fraud examiner's ownership interest is disclosed
C. Undertaking engagements for both sides in a case of an alleged product substitution scheme
D. Accepting an assignment to secretly infiltrate the fraud examiner s employing organization and transmit inside information to another party
According to Silk and Vogel's research, business leaders rationalize legal violations by asserting that the damage done by the violations is diffused among a large number of parties.
A. True
B. False
Which of the following statements regarding document retention policies (DRPs) is TRUE?
A. Document retention policies do not need to include protocols for preserving electronic documents as most IT systems automatically preserve copies of such data
B. When establishing a document retention policy, management should consider any industry-specific rules for documenting and regaining records
C. An effective document retention policy permits the organization to continue the destruction of documents when faced with potential litigation
D. All of the above
Which of the following is FALSE regarding proactive fraud auditing procedures?
A. Implementing proactive fraud audit procedures demonstrates management's intention to aggressively seek out possible fraudulent conduct
B. Fraud audit procedures should be designed to incorporate an element of surprise.
C. Analytical review of the financial statements is best used to uncover small frauds that might be missed by other detection methods
D. Fraud assessment questioning techniques are most appropriately used as part of the normal audit process
Which of the following is NOT explicitly prohibited by the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?
A. Participating in an activity where there is an undisclosed conflict of interest
B. Engaging in behavior that is against the law
C. Drawing conclusions based upon evidence
D. Acting in a way that could be deemed unethical by the industry
Article II of the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics prohibits illegal or unethical conduct, but it allows exceptions for unknowing violations of the law
A. True
B. False
Which of the following principles of corporate governance pertains to the duty of the organization to act in the best interest of society?
A. Responsibility
B. Fairness
C. Transparency
D. Accountability
For its compliance program lo be effective, an organization must perform procedures to ensure management hires only ethical individuals who exercise a substantial measure of discretion in acting on the organization s behalf.
A. True
B. False
According to International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 31000 2018. an organization's risk management program should be proportionate to the organization s specific operations and objectives.
A. True
B. False
Open-door management policies are a fraud prevention mechanism that addresses which leg of the Fraud Triangle?
A. Opportunity
B. Willingness
C. Lack of integrity
D. Pressure
The objective of anti-fraud controls is to:
A. Completely eliminate residual fraud risk
B. Reduce the residual fraud risk to a level that is significantly smaller than the inherent fraud risk
C. Reduce the inherent fraud risk to a level that is significantly smaller than the residual fraud risk.
D. Completely eliminate inherent fraud risk
Which of the following is FALSE regarding fraud examiners responsibilities under the ACFE Code of Professional Ethics?
A. Confidential information provided to fraud examiners by their clients is considered privileged and therefore legally exempt from disclosure in all circumstances
B. In determining what information to include in a fraud examination report, fraud examiners should try to decide what users will consider important and material
C. If fraud examiners become aware of a situation that might appear to others as though they have a conflict of interest they should immediately disclose the situation to company management
D. Fraud examiners must obtain and document evidence in a manner that ensures that the chain of custody is preserved
The Institute of Internal Auditors' (IIA) International Standards for the Professional Practice of Internal Auditing states that
A. The internal auditor must apply the skill and care of an expert whose primary responsibility is investigating fraud
B. The internal auditor must apply the skill and care of an expert whose primary responsibility is detecting fraud.
C. The internal auditor must apply the skill and care of an unbiased, infallible audit professional.
D. The internal auditor must apply the skill and care of a reasonably prudent and competent internal auditor
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